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Is a logarithm with base 1 defined in the field of complex numbers? I have not found any information about this. In real numbers, this is uncertain because $ \ln(1) = 0 $ and $ \log_a(b)= \frac {\ln(b)} {\ln(a)}$.

And it's dividing by zero. But in the field of complex numbers:

$ \ln(1)=2πik $

$ \log_1(z)= \frac {\log_e(z)} {2πik} $

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    $\begingroup$ 1 to any power is 1, complex or not. $\endgroup$ Commented 20 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ No,1 to any INTEGER power is 1. But this is not true in general. In the general case, $1$ belongs to the set $1^z$ for any complex number $z$. For example: $1^{1/4} = \{1,\ -1,\ i,\ -i\}$, and $1^{1/(2\pi i)} = e^{\log(1)/(2\pi i)} = e^{2\pi i k/(2\pi i)} = e^{k} = \{\dotsc,\ e^{-1},\ 1,\ e,\ e^{2},\ \dotsc\}$ $\endgroup$ Commented 19 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ @AvelBulatov: How much complex analysis have you covered, e.g. if you forget about $1$, do you know how to make sense of $z^w$ for complex $z$ and $w$? There is a clean ansatz to think about this type of questions. $\endgroup$ Commented 15 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ @M.G., yes, I know. $ z^w=e^{w*log(z)} $ $\endgroup$ Commented 14 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ If you want it multi-valued, you can take it as $\frac{\ln z+2 \pi i k} {2\pi i}=\frac{\ln z} {2\pi i}+k, k\in\mathbb{Z}$. $\endgroup$ Commented 14 hours ago

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One reasonable definition comes from the observation that $(-1)^2=1$. Thus, one can assume $\log_1 z= \frac12\log_{-1} z$.

This way, the multi-valued logarithm will be

$$\operatorname{Log_1}z=\frac12\operatorname{Log_{-1}}z=\frac{\ln z+i\pi k}{2\ln(-1)}=\frac{\ln z+i\pi k}{2i\pi}=\frac{\ln z}{2i\pi}+k, k\in \mathbb{Z}$$

The simplest expression for a branch will be $\log_1 z=\frac{\ln z}{2i\pi}$, but it should be noted that this is not an established convention.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. I wanted to know if this is a established convention. $\endgroup$ Commented 4 hours ago
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A logarithm to the base $+1$ seems difficult to define because of that issue with division by zero on one logarithmic branch.

We can consider a limited definition for base $-1$ and argument of $\pm1$. To wit,

$\log_{-1}(+1)\equiv0\bmod2\tag{even}$

$\log_{-1}(-1)\equiv1\bmod2\tag{odd}$

If we take any branch of $\ln(+1)$ and divide by any branch of $\ln(-1)$, the result is a rational fraction that invariably reduces to residue $0\bmod2$. Dividing any branch of $\ln(-1)$ and divide by any branch of $\ln(-1)$ similarly gives $1\bmod2$. Addition of the $\bmod2$ residues matches up with multiplication of the $\pm1$ arguments, so this discrete ligarithm indeed has all the properties we normally expect of a logarithm.

We may define similar logarithms using other roots of unity as bases, for example a base that is a primitive cube root of unity can define logarithms with different residues $\bmod3$.

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All definitions of $\log_ax$ and $a^x$ should satisfy $a^{\log_ax}=x$. At least, I'm not sure I've ever seen it otherwise.

So you need definitions that satisfy $1^{\log_1x}=x$. Let's assume $1^x$ works in the usual way. It returns a single number, $1$, regardless of what $x$ is. If $x$ is a number, it would have to work this way to satisfy $1^{\log_1x}=x$. (If you want to work with some different, unusual definition of $1^x$, you'd need to start by offering that definition in precise terms.)

So where does this leave you? $1^{\log_1x}=1$, and what could "$\log_1x$" be to satisfy that? It could be any number at all. But only when $x=1$ will $1^{\log_1x}=x$ be satisfied.

So $\log_11$ should be viewed as an indeterminate expression, like $\frac00$ or $1^{\infty}$. And $\log_1x$ for $x\neq1$ is more severely undefined, similar to $\frac{z}0$ when $z\neq0$.

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Recall that $y = \log_b x$ means that $b^y = x$. If we allow $b$ to be a complex number, expressed as $b = re^{i\theta}$, then:

$$r^ye^{i\theta y} = x$$

Let $b = 1$, so $r = 1$, and $\theta = 2\pi k$, where $k\in\mathbb{Z}$.

$$e^{i2\pi k y} = x$$ $$\cos(2\pi k y) + i\sin(2\pi k y) = x$$

If $|x| = 1$, then we can choose $k \ne 0$ and define $y = \frac{\arg(x)}{2\pi k}$, thus satisfying $1^y = x$ from a certain point of view.

But if $|x| \ne 1$, then there's no way to satisfy the equation, since no matter which choice of $k$ you make, $|\cos(\theta) + i\sin(\theta)| = 1$.

So, while it's possible to define a “base-1 logarithm” on the unit circle, it's not possible to define one on $\mathbb{C}$ as a whole.

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    $\begingroup$ This answer is a bit of a mess :-) First of all, your usage $(\alpha \beta)^y = \alpha^y \beta^y$ in the first equation implies that you've made a choice to use the principal branch of $\log$, I guess. Since $y$ is complex, multiplicative distributivity does not hold in general in the complex numbers (branches and all). Secondly, again since $y$ is complex, the expression $\cos(2 \pi k y) + i \sin(2 \pi k y)$, which itself is simply $e^{2 \pi k y}$, certainly need not be of absolute value $1$. In other words, you've implicitly assumed that $y$ is real. $\endgroup$ Commented 7 hours ago

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