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Bear in mind that if you want a 1 in N odds of running C1, you must probably use (( RANDOM % N == 0 )) rather than (( RANDOM % N )). It's only the in special case of N=2 that these have identical probability.

Asclepius
– Asclepius

2015-07-08 03:25:54 +00:00
Commented Jul 8, 2015 at 3:25
2

Plainly put, of what practical use would be RANDOM % $N without == 0? IMO, for example with N=100, it is much more pragmatic to want a 1 in 100 odds (delivered with == 0) than a 99 in 100 odds (delivered without == 0).

Asclepius
– Asclepius

2015-07-08 20:41:35 +00:00
Commented Jul 8, 2015 at 20:41

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