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    He is opening a port from B to vps, then a redirection from vps to an external port. Then, he claims to be connecting directly from A to B thru that opened channel. Is it not what he already said? Commented Nov 5, 2018 at 16:29
  • Please read: How to make ssh tunnel open to public? Commented Nov 5, 2018 at 16:53
  • And this ssh-tunnel-local-and-remote-port-forwarding-explained-with-examples Commented Nov 5, 2018 at 16:57
  • May be I am missing something (and so may the OP and future readers), but what I have read is exposing your data. Yes I may be an idiot, compared to you. But if I could read it wrong and make a mistake, then so will others. Commented Nov 5, 2018 at 21:55
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    Yes, you are missing that there is not connection from A to C (and then to B). That is a wrong interpretation. What there is is a three step connection: (1) from B to VPS then (2) an internal port forward from port 18822 to port 18888 inside VPS and then (3) a direct connection of A to B. Please read the expanded description at the start of my answer. As long as the authentication of the last ssh command is A directly to B (and keys are not re-used) there could not be any data exposition. Commented Nov 6, 2018 at 5:33