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Dec 11, 2014 at 19:31 comment added mip @JörgWMittag yes I'm asking if such subset natively exists, so that you can do it practically (without the need of writing interpreter/compiler).
Dec 11, 2014 at 19:12 comment added Jörg W Mittag This is a Turing-tarpit argument. It is also wrong, depending on your definition of "translate". Sure, you can do functional programming in C, by implementing an interpreter for Haskell in C. But that's not what the OP means. I interpreted his question as "using a purely functional subset of an imperative language".
Dec 11, 2014 at 1:21 comment added mip Right, you can write the code which will produce same results. However you can't practically do object oriented programming in assembly. Thus if functional languages are something more than I can see, it would be impossible to use functional paradigm in imperative languages.
Dec 11, 2014 at 1:08 history answered Michael Macha CC BY-SA 3.0