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Aug 23, 2014 at 18:31 comment added zpavlinovic Ok, this is what I had in mind when saying a subset of the FOL language. Thanks!
Aug 23, 2014 at 16:24 comment added Shaull Well, PA is a first-order theory. There, propositional atoms are captured by 0-ary relations. In PA, there are no 0-ary relations, so you can't even say $p$. This makes this problem nonexistent.
Aug 23, 2014 at 16:18 comment added zpavlinovic I'll try to do it here, as it is probably just my simple misunderstanding. Consider the theory of PA, and consider any propositional atom $p$. Then, again you cannot prove $p$ nor $\neg p$, hence incompleteness. We don't consider propositional atoms in PA? Basically, are we just focusing on a subset of FOL language in this case?
Aug 23, 2014 at 15:50 comment added Shaull I don't really understand the question. Please elaborate, preferably as a new post.
Aug 23, 2014 at 14:37 comment added zpavlinovic Simple follow-up question. Does one usually prove (in)completeness w.r.t. a subset of the language also? As far as I know, PA axioms do not tell anything about propositional atoms, so incompleteness would then trivially hold by my argument.
Aug 23, 2014 at 14:11 vote accept zpavlinovic
Aug 23, 2014 at 5:57 history answered Shaull CC BY-SA 3.0